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Let $T_R$ be the theory of rings in the language $\{+,\cdot,-,0,1\}$. Let $A$ be the set of one-variable sentences which imply commutativity over $T_R$, and let $B$ be the set of one-variable sentences implied by commutativity over $T_R$. Each set is infinite; for $A$ this is a consequence of Jacobson's theorem (e.g. "$\forall x(x\cdot x=x)$" is in $A$), and for $B$ see this earlier question of mine. Note that "one-variable sentence" allows the variable in question to appear under multiple quantifiers, which is the standard convention in finite-variable logic.

Both $A$ and $B$ are lattices in the usual way; moreover, $A$ has a least element ($\perp$) and $B$ has a greatest element ($\top$). However, beyond this it's not clear to me what $A$ and $B$ "look like." To keep things specific, here is a pair of questions I'm interested in:

  • Does $A$ have a greatest element?

  • Does $B$ have a least element?

I'm happy with an answer to either; since I don't know which is easier, I'm putting them both here. I'd also be happy(er!) with a result connecting the two questions, e.g. "$A^{\mathit{op}}\cong B$" wouldn't answer either question but would decrease the number of questions by 1.

It's easy to see that commutativity itself is not equivalent to any sentence in $A$ or $B$. This is because if $X$ and $Y$ are rings with (up to isomorphism) the same one-element-generated subrings then $X$ and $Y$ agree on all one-variable sentences, and so freely adjoining two noncommuting variables to $\mathbb{Z}$ gives a noncommutative ring satisfying all the same one-variable sentences as the commutative ring $\mathbb{Z}[X]$. (Note, however, that a one-variable sentence can still hold of all one-element-generated subrings of a given ring while failing of that ring!) But this doesn't answer the question.

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    $\begingroup$ Would it be OK to change "neither set is empty" to "neither set is trivial" (since, as you point out later, they are trivially non-empty because $A$ contains $\bot$ and $B$ contains $\top$)? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 21:10
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice Good point, improved! $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 21:49
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    $\begingroup$ It was proven in the answer to your earlier question that $B$ has at least two elements ($\top$ and the sentence given in the answer); do we actually know that $B$ is infinite? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 22:29
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    $\begingroup$ @pastebee I think so; replace 2 and 3 by any pair of distinct primes. The verification that the resulting sentence fails in some noncommutative ring takes more care now, but I believe it's still true. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 22:42

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