EDIT: Unfortunately, I just realized the $B$ matrix in the counterexample below is not positive! I still suspect this to be false, but constructing an example satisfying the necessary constraints will be slightly more subtle. I will think over it further.
Flawed counterexample: Let $1 < \alpha < \sqrt{3/2}$. Then setting $$B = \frac{1}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2}\left(\alpha \begin{bmatrix}6 & 7 & 2 \\ 3& 4 & 8 \\6 & 4 & 5 \end{bmatrix}- \frac{1}{\alpha}\begin{bmatrix}6 & 3 & 6 \\ 7& 4 & 4 \\2 & 8 & 5 \end{bmatrix} \right),$$ we will get that $$A = \alpha B + B^T/\alpha= \begin{bmatrix}6 & 7 & 2 \\ 3& 4 & 8 \\6 & 4 & 5 \end{bmatrix},$$ which has a Perron eigenvalue of $15$ corresponding to a normalized eigenvector $$v = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix},$$ and also an eigenvalue of $3i$ corresponding to the normalized eigenvector $$u = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{6}}\begin{bmatrix} -1 + 3i \\ -1 - 3i \\ 2 \end{bmatrix}.$$ Computing, we see that $$|u^\ast B u| = \left|\frac{3i}{\alpha-1/\alpha} \right| = \frac{3}{\alpha - 1/\alpha}.$$ while $$v^T B v = \frac{15}{\alpha + 1/\alpha}.$$ Finally, we note that for all $\alpha$ such that $1 < \alpha < \sqrt{3/2}$, one can easily verify that $$\frac{15}{\alpha + 1/\alpha} < \frac{3}{\alpha - 1/\alpha}.$$
The key idea behind constructing this example is that, unless $\alpha = 1$, one can generally reconstruct $B$ from $A$, and then simply translate the problem back into one in terms of $A$. We see that the desired is equivalent to a bound on the size of the eigenvalues of $A$ relative to the Perron eigenvalue. This will be true automatically if the eigenvalue is real, but I expect one can construct counterexamples otherwise, as I tried and failed to do above. This is shown in the analysis below.
Analysis
Note that $$A + A^T = (\alpha + 1/\alpha)(B+B^T),$$ and $$A-A^T = (\alpha-1/\alpha)(B-B^T),$$ so we have that \begin{align*} B &= \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{\alpha+1/\alpha}(A+A^T)+\frac{1}{\alpha-1/\alpha}(A-A^T)\right) \\&= \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{\alpha+1/\alpha}+\frac{1}{\alpha-1/\alpha}\right)A + \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{\alpha+1/\alpha}-\frac{1}{\alpha-1/\alpha}\right)A^T. \end{align*} Some basic algebra shows $$\frac{1}{\alpha+1/\alpha}+\frac{1}{\alpha-1/\alpha} = \frac{2\alpha}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2} $$ and $$\frac{1}{\alpha+1/\alpha}-\frac{1}{\alpha-1/\alpha} = \frac{-2/\alpha}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2},$$ so $$B = \frac{1}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2}\left(\alpha A - A^T/\alpha \right),$$ and therefore that $$u^\ast B u = \frac{1}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2}\left(\alpha u^\ast A u - u^\ast A^T u/\alpha \right)$$ for any $u$ in $\mathbb{C}^n$. In particular, if $u$ is a unit eigenvector of $A$, then $u^\ast A u$ is the corresponding eigenvalue $\lambda$ and $u^\ast A^T u$ is its complex conjugate $\overline{\lambda}$ (to see this, note that $u^\ast A^T u$ is the conjugate transpose of the one-by-one matrix $u^\ast A u$, as $A$ has real entries). Therefore, for a unit eigenvector $u$ of $A$ with eigenvalue $\lambda$, we have $$|u^\ast B u| = \left|\frac{1}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2}(\alpha \lambda - \overline{\lambda}/\alpha) \right| = \frac{1}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2}\left | \alpha \lambda - \overline{\lambda}/\alpha \right|.$$
On the other hand, because $v$ is a real eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $r = \rho(A)$, we have that $v^T B v = v^T B^T v$ and $v^T A v = v^T A^T v = r$ (by taking the one-by-one transpose), we have that $$v^T B v = \frac{1}{2}(v^T (B + B^T)v) = \frac{1}{2(\alpha + 1/\alpha)}(v^T(A + A^T)v) = \frac{r}{\alpha + 1/\alpha}.$$ Therefore, the desired inequality states that, for any eigenvalue $\lambda$ of $A$, $$\frac{1}{\alpha^2-1/\alpha^2}\left | \alpha \lambda - \overline{\lambda}/\alpha \right| \leq \frac{r}{\alpha + 1/\alpha},$$ which is equivalent to $$\frac{1}{\alpha-1/\alpha}\left | \alpha \lambda - \overline{\lambda}/\alpha \right| \leq r,$$ which is again equivalent to $$|\lambda| \frac{|\alpha - e^{-2i\theta} /\alpha|}{\alpha-1/\alpha} \leq r,$$ where $\theta$ is a complex argument of the eigenvalue $\lambda$. If $\theta = 0$ (i.e. the eigenvalue $\lambda$ is real), this automatically holds (as $r$ is strictly larger than all other eigenvalues in magnitude, and the factor on the left side is just one). However, if not, I expect we can force the factor on the left side to be larger than one.