This question is subsequent from my previous one.
I will write everything in detail for the sake of completeness.
Let $g_1$ and $g_2$ be smooth functions on $\mathbb{R}$, whose derivatives of all orders are polynomially bounded. They are tempered distributions on $\mathbb{R}$.
Then, the tensor product $(g_1 \otimes g_2)(x,y):=g_1(x)g_2(y)$ is clearly a tempered distribution on $\mathbb{R}^2$.
Now, let $\Delta_n$ be a sequence of Schwartz functions on $\mathbb{R}^2$ converging to $\delta(x-y)$ in the weak$^*$ topology of distributions. That is, for any Schwartz function $F$ on $\mathbb{R}^2$, we have $$ \lim\limits_{n \to \infty}\int_{\mathbb{R}^2} \Delta_n(x,y)F(x,y)dxdy = \int_{\mathbb{R}} F(x,x)dx $$
Now, I wonder if the following is true: $$ \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \int_{\mathbb{R}^2} \Delta_n(x,y)g_1(x)g_2(y) f(x)dxdy = \int_{\mathbb{R}} g_1(x)g_2(x) f(x)dx $$ for any Schwartz function $f$ on $\mathbb{R}$?
Obviously, the co-located product $(g_1g_2)(x):=g_1(x)g_2(x)$ has all derivatives polynomially bounded and is a tempered distribution $\mathbb{R}$ and heuristically, the above formula I question looks correct.
However, the answer in my previous one says that such naive thoughts may not be correct in general. So, I would like to check in a more simplified setting.
Could anyone help me?