2
$\begingroup$

We consider here a Galton–Watson process with an offspring distribution $X$, where $\mathbb{E}X = \mu$ and $\operatorname{Var} X = \sigma^{2} < \infty$ and $q = \mathbb{P}(\text{extinction})$, i.e., the extinction probability.

I want to prove that the general upper bound of the extinction probability is given by: $$q \leq 1 - \frac{\mu - 1}{\sigma^{2} + \mu^{2} - \mu}.$$

So if this helps, I can rewrite the above form as follows: $$q \leq 1 - \frac{G_X'(1) - G_X(1)}{G_X''(1)},$$ where $G_X(s)$ is the probability generating function of the random variable $X$.

But here I am stuck.

I know the question is not well-asked, but hope that anyone can give me some hints.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 10
    $\begingroup$ I think you should change your username to a more neutral one. $\endgroup$ Commented May 1, 2020 at 23:19
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Cross-posted at math.stackexchange.com/questions/3649820/… . You should disclose your cross-posts to prevent duplication of effort. $\endgroup$ Commented May 3, 2020 at 16:41
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @YCor Sure I'll change as soon as I can. Since I already changed my username around a month ago, I am currently not able to change, but 4 days later :) $\endgroup$ Commented May 3, 2020 at 19:33

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

We have $$G(s):=G_X(s)=Es^X,$$ with the convention $0^0:=1$, where $X$ is a random variable with values in $\{0,1,\dots\}$ and $EX^2<\infty$. So, $G$ is a nonnegative nondecreasing convex function from $[0,1]$ to $[0,1]$ with nondecreasing $G''$. Also, $G(0)=P(X=0)$ and $G'(0)=P(X=1)$. So, excepting the case when $P(X=0)=0$ and $P(X=1)=1$ (and hence $G''=0$, which makes your inequality devoid of meaning), the extinction probability is the smallest root of the equation $$G(q)=q. \tag{1}$$ Also, $G(1)=1$. So, by the convexity of $G$ and (1), we have $G(s)\le s$ for $s\in[q,1]$ and $G(s)\ge s$ for $s\in[0,q]$. So,
$$G'(q)\le1.$$ So, $$G'(1)-G(1)=G'(1)-1\le G'(1)-G'(q)=\int_q^1 G''(s)\,ds \le \int_q^1 G''(1)\,ds=(1-q)G''(1),$$ which implies that indeed $$q\le1-\frac{G'(1)-G(1)}{G''(1)},$$ as desired.


To illustrate this, here are the graphs $\{(s,s)\colon0\le s\le1\}$ (blue) and $\{(s,G(s))\colon0\le s\le1\}$ (gold) for the case when $X$ takes values $0,1,2$ with probabilities $\frac2{10},\frac1{10},\frac7{10}$, respectively, so that here $q=\frac27$.

enter image description here

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ How does $G''(s) \leq G''(1)$ inequality trivially hold? Is it a property of convexity? $\endgroup$ Commented May 3, 2020 at 19:37
  • $\begingroup$ @AsianbutnoChinese : $G''$ is nondecreasing, because $G'''\ge0$ (and actually $G^{(k)}\ge0$ for all $k=0,1,\dots$) on the interval $[0,1)$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 3, 2020 at 23:35
  • $\begingroup$ Ahh right it was not clever to ask. Thank you! $\endgroup$ Commented May 4, 2020 at 19:48

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.