1
$\begingroup$

Let $U_\infty$ be a compact space, and let $U_r$ be an increasing family of compact subspaces whose closure is all of $U_\infty$. That is, $U_r \subseteq U_{r'}$ if $r \le r'$ and $U_\infty = \overline{\bigcup U_r}$.

For $r \in [1,\infty]$, let $Y_r = C(U_r,\mathbb R)$ be the Banach space of real-valued continuous functions over $U_r$ with the supremum norm. For $r \le r'$, let $\phi_{r,r'} : Y_{r'} \to Y_r$ be the restriction maps, so that $Y_\infty$ is the inverse limit of the spaces $Y_r$. Write $\phi_r : Y_\infty \to Y_r$ for the restriction map $\phi_{r,\infty}$.

Suppose there exists a family of continuous linear operators $m_r : Y_r \to Y_\infty$ such that $\|m_r\| \le M$ for all $r$, and $\phi_r \circ m_r$ is the identity map on $Y_r$.

Question: Suppose $\Gamma \subseteq Y_\infty$ is compact. Does $m_r \circ \phi_r$ converge strongly to the identity operator on $\Gamma$? That is, for all $\epsilon > 0$, does there exist $R > 0$ such that if $r \ge R$, then $$\sup_{y \in \Gamma} \left\| (m_r \circ \phi_r)(y) - y \right\|_{Y_\infty} < \epsilon?$$

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ $Y_{\infty}$ is Banach? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2010 at 3:24
  • $\begingroup$ @santker heboln: by definition $Y_\infty$ is the space of real-valued continuous functions on the compact space $U_\infty$, equipped with the sup norm. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2010 at 3:34
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I missed the definition of $U_{\infty}$. Nvm $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2010 at 3:49
  • $\begingroup$ (deleted daft comment claiming answer to question was yes. in fact answer appears to be no; see below.) $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2010 at 4:13

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

Contrary to my original muddled guess, the answer is no: the problem is that your `extension operators' don't give enough control over what happens in the gap between $U_\infty$ and $U_r$.

For a concrete example, take $U_r$ to be the closed interval $[r^{-1},2]$ (for $1\leq r\leq\infty$), which clearly satisfies the conditions of the question. Now define the extension operator $m_r$ as follows: given $f$ continuous and real-valued on $U_r$, extend it to all of $[0,2]$ by putting $m_r(f)(0)=0$ and interpolating linearly, i.e.

$$ m_r(f)(t) = r^{-1}t f(1/r) \hbox{ if } 0\leq t\leq r \hbox{ and } m_r(f)(t)=f(t) \hbox{ if } 1/r\leq t \leq 2.$$ Clearly each $m_r$ is a linear extension operator with norm $1$.

Now let ${\bf 1}$ be the function on $[0,2]$ with constant function $1$. Then

$$ \Vert m_r\circ\phi_r({\bf 1}) - {\bf 1} \Vert \geq \vert m_r\circ\phi_r({\bf 1})(0) - {\bf 1}(0) \vert = 1 $$ for all $r<\infty$.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Ee glaiky o'mesel. Cheers, marra. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2010 at 23:14

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.