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The orthic triangle exists for any given triangle with the following remarks:

  • For acute triangle orthic triangle is inscribed triangle
  • For a rectangular triangle it is degenerated triangle (a segment)
  • For obtuse initial triangle it is some normal arbitrary triangle

enter image description here

Thus, for any triangle except the rectangular one, we can construct orthic triangle for it’s orthic triangle etc,
carrying out an iterative process.

The results of this process are interesting to me. In general, it is weird,
pseudo-chaotic structure.

enter image description here

On the one hand, the area of the triangles decreases (?), That is, they converge to a point.
The first question is whether this can be proved, if always area of orthic triangle is less than area of initial and can we say anything about this fixed point?

On the other hand, the position of each successive triangle (although it is certainly expressed by precise formulas) is highly dependent on the initial conditions (SDIC), which resembles deterministic chaos. This is well seen in dynamic demonstrations (they are available on Mathematica and Geogebra, ready to post on request).
Is there any way to analyze this behavior?

Interestingly, the process of changing the angles of the obtained triangles can be accurately algorithmized.
His behavior I have tried to describe here. Although the algorithm is completely unambiguous, many questions arise as well.

If the angles of the original triangle are rational parts of $\pi$, there are two options for angles iterations:

  • Cycles (different, sometimes long)
  • Convergence to a rectangular triangle

It didn’t surprise me much, but would like to prove it.

I would be grateful for any comments, remarks, suggestions.

UPDATE 1

Suddenly I discovered something interesting.
In some sense, the inverse transformation will be a triangle of excenters formed by exterior angles bisectors.
For it, the initial triangle will be orthic triangle. This is true on both sides if triangles are acute.
Otherwise, I don’t really understand the mechanism of inversion.

In any case we can consider the iterative sequence of triangles of excenters.
And we will see that it really has the opposite properties.

enter image description here

  1. The resulting triangles increase endlessly.
  2. Because the angles are transformed in this way: $$\alpha,\beta,\gamma \mapsto \frac{\alpha+\beta}{2},\frac{\beta+\gamma}{2},\frac{\alpha+\gamma}{2}$$ they tend to $\pi/3$ and any initial triangle tend to equilateral.

So naively intuitively it is clear that the sequence of reverse transformations should be converging, and at the same time be chaotic, as opposed to smoothing.

UPDATE 2
Fix two points ($P1$ and $P2$ at picture),
and let a third point (green at picture) run through the concentric circles (with appropriate steps):

enter image description here

For the three points construct triangle, and find final centroid of convergent orthic triangles sequence from it as initial:

enter image description here

I’ve seen a similar picture in articles about chaos theory,
and I’m sure this process has something to do with it.
I hope someone will pay attention to this, and professionally investigate the topic.

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    $\begingroup$ A small remark on "On the one hand, the area of the triangles decreases (?), That is, they converge to a point." -- In general (not necessarily in this setting), the area of the triangles may decrease (even to $0$) without them converging to a point. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 13 at 17:30
  • $\begingroup$ @IosifPinelis, yes, and it is not clear to me ( $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 13 at 17:48
  • $\begingroup$ I think it's not necessarily true that the area always decreases. For instance, consider a very obtuse isosceles triangle having base 2 and height $h \ll 1$. The orthic is also isosceles with base $\sim 2$ and height $\sim 2h$ (where these approximations improve as $h \to 0$). Thus, the orthic has roughly twice the area of the original. But your intuition is not far off, the relevant measure turns out to be the circumradius rather than the area. See my answer below for the details. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 13 at 22:33
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    $\begingroup$ See also this question on mathstack: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3078774/… $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 13 at 22:55
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ And also dair.dias.ie/id/eprint/866/1/DIAS-STP-83-16.pdf Kingston and Synge, On the sequences of pedal triangles. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 13 at 23:03

1 Answer 1

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Nice question! The following is an answer to the first part concerning convergence to a point. (I'm not sure about the behaviour of the angle sequence.)

Theorem. In all non-degenerate cases, the sequence of iterated orthic triangles indeed converges to a point.

(I'll comment on the degenerate case at the end.)

The two key properties of the (non-degenerate) orthic triangle are the following. Consider (non-right) triangle $T = \triangle ABC$ and let $T'$ be its orthic triangle. Then,

  1. the circumradius of $T'$ is exactly half that of $T$;
  2. the closed discs bounded by the circumcircles of $T$ and $T'$ intersect.

These together suffice to show that any sequence of points in the iterated orthic triangles is Cauchy, hence converges and its easy to then show that the limit point does not depend on the particular sequence of representative points.

Property 1 is asserted all over the place but most of the freely available literature is not clear about whether it holds for obtuse triangles so let me give a proof due to Graeme Wilkin:

Proof of property 1. The claim of property 1 is obvious for equilateral triangles. In all other cases, let's help ourselves to the following facts (see, e.g., Posamentier and Ingmar, The Secrets of Triangles for elementary proofs).

  • The well-known nine-point circle theorem: for any triangle, the feet of the altitudes, the midpoints of the sides, and the midpoints of the segments joining each vertex to the orthocenter (the intersection point of the altitudes) all lie on a common circle (the nine-point circle).
  • The center of the nine-point circle bisects the segment joining the circumcenter and orthocenter. (This is a non-degenerate segment unless the triangle is equilateral.)

Let $O$, $H$, $N$ be the circumcenter, orthocenter, and center of the nine-point circle of $T = \triangle ABC$ respectively. (If $T$ is obtuse, say $A$ is the obtuse angle.) Let $E_A$ be the midpoint of $HA$. By definition, $|HE_A| = \frac12|HA|$. By the nine-point circle theorem, the circumradius of the orthic triangle $T'$ is $|NE_A|$ and since $N$ bisects $OH$, he have that $|HN| = \frac12|HO|$. Thus, $\frac{|HE_A|}{|HA|} = \frac12 = \frac{|HN|}{|HO|}$ and by the intercept theorem, it follows that $NE_A$ is parallel to $AO$. Then using similar triangles $\triangle HNE_A$ and $\triangle HAO$, we have that $|NE_A| = \frac12|OA|$. But $|OA|$ is the circumradius of $T$! Thus, the circumradius of $T'$ is exactly half that of $T$. QED.

Proof of property 2. Let $D$, $D'$ be the closed discs bounded by the circumcircles of $T$ and $T'$, respectively. Obviously, $T \subset D$ and $T' \subset D'$. But also, at least one vertex, call it $A'$, of $T'$ is contained in $T$ (they all are if $T$ is acute, the foot of the altitude from the obtuse angle is if $T$ is obtuse.) So $A' \in D' \cap D$ and the discs intersect as claimed. QED.

Now we can prove the convergence result.

Proof of theorem. Let $T_0,T_1,T_2,\dots$ be the iterated orthic triangle sequence $T_{n+1} = T_n'$ for some initial $T_0$ and assume none of them are degenerate. (For the following, you may take these triangles to be either the 1-skeletons or the closed filled polygons, it doesn't make a difference.) Take arbitrary $x_n \in T_n$ for each $n$. Let $r_n$ be the circumradius of $T_n$. By property 1, we have that $r_{n+1} = \frac12 r_n$. By property 2, take $w_n$ to be a point belonging the circumdiscs of both $T_n$ and $T_{n+1} = T_n'$. Then $$ \lVert x_n - x_{n+1} \rVert \le \lVert x_n - w_n\rVert + \lVert w_n - x_{n+1}\rVert \le 2r_n + 2r_{n+1} = 3r_n = \frac{3r_0}{2^n}. $$ Therefore, the sequence $(x_n)$ is Cauchy, hence converges, say to $x$.

Lastly, let's see that this limit point $x$ does not depend on the particular choices of the $x_n$ in each $T_n$. Consider some other sequence $y_n \in T_n$. By the same reasoning, $y_n \to y$ for some point $y$. But for the same reason again, the interleaved sequence $x_0,y_1,x_2,y_3,x_4,y_5,\dots$ also converges, hence $x = y$. QED.

Remark. If you prefer, one can also dispense with these sequences of points and argue instead that the sequence of triangles itself is Cauchy in a certain complete metric space, but the reasoning is essentially the same when one unpacks the definitions. Namely, consider the sequence of triangles (again either the 1-skeletons or the closed filled polygons) as elements of the space $F(\mathbb R^2)$ of all non-empty compact subsets of $\mathbb R^2$ equipped with the Hausdorff metric $d_{\mathrm H}$. Since $\mathbb R^2$ is complete, so is $(F(\mathbb R^2),d_{\mathrm H})$. Reasoning as above, one finds $(T_n)$ is Cauchy w.r.t. $d_{\mathrm H}$, hence converges to some non-empty compact set $X$. But also, using the circumradii, one argues that the diameter of $X$ is zero, hence $X$ is a singleton.

The degenerate case. It seems to me that how you handle the degenerate case is a matter of taste. Obviously, if you simply terminate the iterative process whenever you hit a degenerate triangle, then in these cases, you won't have convergence to a point. But I can imagine reasonable conventions for the orthic triangle of a degenerate triangle which make both the theorem and the above proof valid in all cases. If $\triangle ABC$ is a right triangle with right angle $A$, then the degenerate orthic triangle is $\triangle AH_AA$ where $H_A$ is the foot of the altitude from $A$, so the degenerate case concerns triangles of the from $\triangle PQP$. Of course, the "side" $PP$ does not determine a line, so there is no altitude from $Q$ and (perhaps more seriously) there isn't a unique limit of orthic triangles for $\triangle PQR$ as $R \to P$. However, there is a unique limiting nine-point circle (passing through the midpoints of $PQ,QR,RP$) converging to the circle $S$ whose center lies in the segment $PQ$ and passes through $P$ and the midpoint $M$ of $PQ$. Moreover, if we regard this circle $S$ as the nine-point circle of $T = \triangle PQP$ and insist that the orthic triangle $T'$ is inscribed in $S$, then we preserve the circumradius halving feature. These conditions still don't uniquely determine a triangle $T'$ but we might, by fiat, insist (like the acute case) that $T'$ is also inscribed in $T$. This leaves only the choices $\triangle PPP$ or $\triangle PMP$. I personally like the latter because it seems wrong to say that $\triangle PPP$ is inscribed in $S$. Thus, I propose the convention: the orthic triangle of $\triangle PQP$ is the triangle $\triangle PMP$ where $M$ is the midpoint of $PQ$ and the circumcircle of $\triangle PQP$ is the circle with center $M$ and radius $MP$. For completeness, we might also say that the super degenerate $\triangle PPP$ is its own orthic and has circumcircle with center $P$ and radius zero. Under these conventions, the above proof works in all cases (including $T_0 = \triangle PPP$).

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  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks, very profound answer! Interesting is it possible to say something about the position of the end point relative to the initial triangle? perhaps based on the property 2? Or it’s still an unpredictable location and we have a SDIC problem here. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 5:19
  • $\begingroup$ @DenisIvanov the above reasoning gives an upper bound on the distance from $T_0$. I expect the exact limiting point indeed depends sensitively due to the non-linearity of the map in full generality. But perhaps it's stable in neighborhoods of some triangles (e.g. equilateral). If so inclined, it might be fun to do some visualizations. For example, consider the map $f : [0,\infty)^2 \to \mathbb R^2$ which given $(x,y)$ returns the limiting point for the initial triangle with vertices $(-1,0),(1,0),(x,y)$. Approximating $f$ numerically in some region and visualizing the image might be neat. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 17:03
  • $\begingroup$ Edward Tisdel Wow, i made update just now! $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 17:07
  • $\begingroup$ @DenisIvanov What I have in mind is the following. Using the limiting point map f described above, you could color the input pixels $(x,y)$ according to the (approximate) image point $(u,v) = f(x,y)$, say using hue and brightness to represent the direction and magnitude of $(u,v)$, respectively. I would probably choose the two fixed vertices so that the equilateral case is centered at the origin. Due to the symmetries $(\pm u,\pm v) = f(\pm x,\pm y)$, you only need to sample in a quarter plane. Such a digram would show you regions of stability and of sensitive dependence up to the resolution. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 17:16
  • $\begingroup$ @ Jack Edward Tisdell yes, thank you, i'll do it $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 17:21

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