Software Testing 100 Mcqs
1. Quality is best defined as:
a) Bug-free software
b) Meeting deadlines
c) Fit for use or purpose
d) Maximum number of features
2. The main goal of software testing is to:
a) Eliminate all coding activities
b) Ensure the product is error-free and meets customer requirements
c) Reduce project deadlines
d) Increase the number of test cases
3. A project differs from a product because:
a) A project is for multiple customers; a product is for one customer
b) A project is based on customer requirements; a product is based on company
specifications
c) A project does not need testing; a product always requires testing
d) A project has no maintenance phase; product does
4. Why is software testing needed?
a) To reduce documentation effort
b) To identify defects, reduce flaws, and improve system quality
c) To shorten coding time
d) To increase the number of modules
5. Which of the following is not a benefit of software testing?
a) Customer Satisfaction
b) Cost Effectiveness
c) Security
d) Increased Complexity
6. Which principle of testing says that "finding and fixing defects does not
help if the system is unusable"?
a) Early Testing
b) Defect Clustering
c) Pesticide Paradox
d) Absence of Errors Fallacy
7. According to the Pareto Principle (80–20 Rule) in testing:
a) 80% of modules have 20% of bugs
b) 20% of modules have 80% of bugs
c) 80% of test cases are redundant
d) 20% of bugs are critical
8. Quality Assurance (QA) is mainly:
a) A reactive process focusing on detection
b) A proactive process focusing on prevention
c) Done after Quality Control
d) Only about executing test cases
9. Quality Control (QC) is mainly:
a) Ensuring processes are followed
b) Proactive and preventive
c) A corrective, defect detection process performed after QA
d) Not required in SDLC
10. QA is considered a activity, while QC is considered a activity.
a) Validation, Verification
b) Execution, Documentation
c) Verification, Validation
d) Testing, Development
11. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes Quality
Assurance (QA) from Quality Control (QC)?
a) QA is a corrective technique, while QC is a preventive technique
b) QA involves executing the program, while QC does not
c) QA is performed after QC to validate the product
d) QA is a preventive technique that ensures processes are followed, while QC
is a corrective technique that identifies and fixes defects
12. Which of the following correctly represents the phases of the Software
Development Life Cycle (SDLC) in order?
a) Requirements → Ideation → Design → Development → Testing →
Deployment → Maintenance
b) Ideation → Requirements → Design → Development → Testing →
Deployment → Maintenance
c) Design → Requirements → Ideation → Development → Testing →
Deployment → Maintenance
d) Ideation → Design → Requirements → Development → Deployment →
Testing → Maintenance
13. What is the primary goal of the Software Development Life Cycle
(SDLC)?
a) To reduce the number of developers needed for a project
b) To eliminate the need for software testing
c) To minimize project risks and ensure the software meets customer
expectations
d) To speed up the deployment phase only
14. What are the two main activities involved in the Project Initiation phase
of the SDLC?
a) Gather Business Requirements and Conduct Meetings
b) Analyze Requirements for Validity & Incorporation
c) Develop a Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders
d) Prepare Requirement Specification Document
15. Which SDLC phase is responsible for ensuring that the developed
software meets all specified requirements through quality checks?
a) Design
b) Development
c) Testing
d) Deployment
16. Which of the following best describes the flow of phases in the Waterfall
Model?
a) Phases are repeated in cycles until the product is complete
b) Phases overlap and allow for continuous feedback
c) Each phase is completed fully before the next begins, with no overlap
d) Phases are skipped based on project needs
17. What is a key characteristic of the V Model in the Software Development
Life Cycle (SDLC)?
a) It supports iterative development and flexible changes
b) Testing is performed only after the entire development is complete
c) Each development phase has a corresponding testing phase in parallel
d) It is best suited for large, complex projects with evolving requirements
18. What is the main difference between verification and validation in the V
Model?
a) Verification is done after validation
b) Verification is static and does not involve code execution, while validation is
dynamic and involves executing code
c) Validation checks the process, while verification checks the product
d) Both are the same and used interchangeably
19. For which type of project is the V Model most suitable?
a) Large projects with frequently changing requirements
b) Projects requiring continuous integration and delivery
c) Small projects with clear and well-defined requirements
d) Projects that require rapid prototyping and user feedback
20. What is a key disadvantage of the Prototype Model?
a) It does not support early feedback
b) It is unsuitable for projects with changing requirements
c) It requires extensive customer collaboration and can be time-consuming
d) It does not allow for requirement refinement
21. The Iterative Development Model is mainly based on:
a) Building the software once and delivering at the end
b) Repeating smaller development cycles to refine the product
c) Skipping testing until deployment
d) Avoiding customer involvement
22. One advantage of the Iterative Model is:
a) No feedback is needed during development
b) Errors can be removed early during development
c) Documentation is not required
d) Testing is not performed
23. The Agile Model breaks down the product into:
a) One single large delivery at the end
b) Small incremental builds delivered in iterations
c) Only prototypes without a final product
d) A design-only document
24. In Agile, the highest priority is:
a) Creating complete documentation
b) Delivering working software to customers quickly
c) Following strict processes
d) Avoiding customer interaction
25. Which principle of Agile talks about welcoming changes at any stage?
a) Customer Satisfaction
b) Deliver Working Software Frequently
c) Welcome Change
d) Self-organized Teams
26. According to Agile Principles, the best architectures and designs come
from:
a) Upper management decisions
b) Self-organized teams
c) External consultants
d) Strict documentation rules
27. In Scrum, the Product Owner is mainly responsible for:
a) Writing test cases
b) Managing the product backlog
c) Conducting daily stand-up meetings
d) Writing code for all features
28. The Scrum Master’s role is to:
a) Ensure the team follows Scrum practices properly
b) Write the system design
c) Assign tasks directly to developers
d) Approve software releases
29. The Scrum Team should be:
a) Cross-functional and self-organizing
b) Dependent only on managers
c) Limited strictly to 20–25 people
d) Made of only testers
30. In Scrum, which artifact represents the ordered list of everything needed
in a product?
a) Sprint Backlog
b) Product Backlog
c) Increment
d) Release Notes
31. What is the maximum recommended size of a Scrum team?
a) 5 members
b) 7 to 12 members
c) 15 to 20 members
d) Unlimited, based on project size
32. The Sprint Backlog is owned by:
a) Product Owner
b) Scrum Master
c) Development Team
d) Stakeholders
33. In Kanban, Lead Time refers to:
a) Time between task start and completion
b) Total time from task creation to delivery
c) Time required to fix a defect
d) Time a task spends in a queue
34. Which of the following is NOT a Scrum Artifact?
a) Product Backlog
b) Sprint Backlog
c) Increment
d) Velocity Chart
35. A Project Risk example is:
a) Huge last-minute requirement changes
b) New programming language used in product
c) Database migration issue affecting features
d) Lack of test coverage due to limited cases
36. In Scrum, the Definition of Done applies to:
a) Product Backlog
b) Sprint Backlog
c) Increment
d) Test Plan
37. One of the principles of Kanban is:
a) Welcome changing requirements
b) Implement feedback loops
c) Daily stand-up meetings
d) Deliver increments every sprint
38. Which of these is NOT an Agile principle?
a) Customer satisfaction through early delivery
b) Simplicity is essential
c) Heavy documentation over working software
d) Self-organizing teams
39. Which of the following best describes Risk-Based Testing?
a) Focuses on executing only high-priority tests
b) Testing is planned based on probability & impact of risks
c) Involves exhaustive testing of all features
d) Only regression testing is performed
40. A Product Risk may occur when:
a) The test environment is unavailable
b) The developer is new and unfamiliar with the system
c) Stakeholders delay approvals
d) Client introduces changes mid-project
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the software testing process?
a) Test Execution → Test Planning → Test Design → Test Closure
b) Test Planning → Test Design → Test Execution → Test Closure
c) Test Design → Test Planning → Test Execution → Test Closure
d) Test Execution → Test Design → Test Planning → Test Closure
42. What is the first step in the software testing life cycle (STLC)?
a) Test Execution
b) Requirement Analysis
c) Test Planning
d) Test Closure
43. In which phase are test cases and test data created?
a) Test Planning
b) Test Design
c) Test Execution
d) Test Closure
44. Which activity is performed during the Test Planning phase?
a) Writing Test Cases
b) Executing Test Cases
c) Estimating Effort & Resources
d) Reporting Defects
45. During which phase are actual test cases run and results compared with
expected outcomes?
a) Test Design
b) Test Execution
c) Test Closure
d) Requirement Analysis
46. The process of ensuring that all planned test cases are completed and
defects are logged occurs in which phase?
a) Test Planning
b) Test Execution
c) Test Closure
d) Requirement Analysis
47. Which phase of the test process involves preparing test summary reports
and lessons learned?
a) Test Execution
b) Test Design
c) Test Closure
d) Requirement Analysis
48. Which of the following is NOT a key activity in the test process?
a) Test Planning
b) Test Execution
c) Test Maintenance
d) Test Deployment
49. Which of the following is NOT a Test Automation Framework?
a) Data-Driven Framework
b) Keyword-Driven Framework
c) Page Object Model
d) Load Balancing Framework
50. Which non-functional testing ensures software’s ability to handle multiple
users at the same time?
a) Usability Testing
b) Performance Testing
c) Accessibility Testing
d) Compatibility Testing
51. Accessibility Testing mainly ensures compliance with:
a) Browser compatibility
b) Security vulnerabilities
c) Standards for users with disabilities
d) Coding guidelines
52. Which document is a key deliverable of the Requirement Analysis phase in
STLC?
a) Test Execution Report
b) Requirement Traceability Matrix (RTM)
c) Test Strategy Document
d) Defect Log
53. Entry Criteria in Test Execution generally includes:
a) Test cases and scripts are ready
b) Defect reports are finalized
c) Test summary report is prepared
d) Automation tools installed
54. Verification answers the question:
a) Are we building the right system?
b) Are we building the system right?
c) Is the system defect-free?
d) Is the system user-friendly?
55. Validation is also known as:
a) Static Testing
b) Structural Testing
c) Dynamic Testing
d) Regression Testing
56. Black Box Testing is primarily based on:
a) Internal logic of the code
b) External specifications and functionality
c) Database schema validation
d) Code coverage analysis
57. Which review type is led by a trained moderator and uses checklists?
a) Walkthrough
b) Informal Review
c) Technical Review
d) Inspection
58. Which of the following is a limitation of Dynamic Testing compared to
Static Testing?
a) Detects defects late in the SDLC
b) Helps improve productivity early
c) Checks documentation errors
d) Involves peer review only
59. Which of the following is NOT a category of dynamic testing techniques?
a) Structure-based Testing
b) Documentation-based Testing
c) Experience-Based Techniques
d) Specification-based Techniques
60. What is the main purpose of structure-based testing techniques?
a) To verify code coverage
b) To guess errors based on experience
c) To test only user requirements
d) To group input data in partitions
61. Which tool is commonly used for measuring code coverage?
a) SonarQube
b) Photoshop
c) Excel
d) MS Word
62. Which experience-based technique relies on tester knowledge to guess
where defects may be?
a) Error Guessing
b) Boundary Value Analysis
c) Equivalence Partitioning
d) Decision Table
63. What is the main hypothesis behind Equivalence Partitioning?
a) If one condition in a partition passes, all pass; if one fails, all fail
b) Every boundary must be tested twice
c) All user inputs must be accepted
d) Only invalid values are tested
64. Boundary Value Analysis focuses on which area of software testing?
a) Testing at partition boundaries
b) Testing only invalid values
c) Grouping inputs
d) Designing user interfaces
65. Which of the following is a specification-based testing technique?
a) Use Case Testing
b) Statement Coverage
c) Error Guessing
d) Exploratory Testing
66. What is statement coverage in structure-based testing?
a) Percentage of code statements executed by tests
b) Percentage of functions tested
c) Amount of experience needed
d) Number of test cases written
67. Which technique divides input data into different equivalence data classes
for test case creation?
a) Equivalence Partitioning
b) Boundary Value Analysis
c) Exploratory Testing
d) Decision Table
68. In Boundary Value Analysis, which values are considered valid for a
password with a minimum of 6 and maximum of 10 characters?
a) 6, 7, 9, 10
b) 1, 5, 11, 12
c) Only 7 and 9
d) 0 and above 10
69. What is the main purpose of Pairwise (All Pairs) Testing?
a) To reduce the number of test cases
b) To test only invalid inputs
c) To automate regression testing
d) To skip negative testing
70. In Pairwise Testing, exhaustive testing produced 4000 test cases, but
pairwise testing reduced it to how many?
a) 32
b) 8
c) 64
d) 100
71. State Transition Testing is most useful when:
a) Application has a very large dataset
b) Application behavior depends on input sequence
c) Application has no dependencies
d) Only UI needs to be tested
72. In the State Transition example (PIN entry), what happens after 3 incorrect
attempts?
a) Access granted
b) PIN reset
c) Account blocked
d) User logged out
73. Decision Tables are also called:
a) Use Case Tables
b) Cause-Effect Tables
c) Data Flow Tables
d) Error Logs
74. Use Case Testing is most effective in identifying:
a) System performance defects
b) Integration defects
c) Memory leaks
d) UI color mismatches
75. Which document captures all software-related aspects of a system?
a) BRS
b) FRS
c) SRS
d) Test Plan
76. Who typically prepares the Business Requirement Specification (BRS)?
a) Test Engineer
b) Developer
c) Business Analyst
d) End User
77. The Test Plan helps in:
a) Writing code
b) Tracking bugs
c) Defining testing strategy, time, cost, and effort
d) Managing customer payments
78. Which type of Test Plan covers the entire software project?
a) Phase Test Plan
b) Specific Test Plan
c) Master Test Plan (MTP)
d) Regression Plan
79. Which of the following is an informal name specified for a defect?
a) Error
b) Bug
c) Fault
d) Failure
80. A defect is defined as:
a) A mistake in coding that cannot be compiled
b) The state that causes the software to fail
c) The difference between actual outcomes and expected outputs
d) A problem caused by system usage
81. An error is primarily raised by:
a) Test Engineers
b) Developers and automation test engineers
c) Manual Testers
d) Business Analysts
82. Which of the following is NOT a type of defect severity?
a) Critical
b) Major
c) Logical
d) Minor
83. Which type of issue is considered a failure?
a) Incorrect data in code
b) User mistakes in input
c) If software has many defects, leading it to stop working
d) Syntactic or calculation errors
84. Which of the following is NOT a type of bug?
a) Logic bug
b) Algorithmic bug
c) Resource bug
d) Business Logic fault
85. A Fault in software can occur due to:
a) Missing coding
b) Error in logic
c) Improper step in initial stage, process, or data definition
d) Invalid login loop
86. Which of the following can prevent Defects?
a) Peer Review
b) Confirm Re-testing
c) Execute detailed code analysis
d) Categorize and evaluate issues
87. Which category of error includes invalid loop, syntax, and inconsistency
issues?
a) Syntactic Error
b) Flow control error
c) Testing Error
d) Calculation error
88. To prevent Bugs, one of the recommended approaches is:
a) Implement innovative programming methods
b) Peer review
c) Test-driven development
d) Categorize and evaluate issues
89. What is a test scenario?
a) A detailed step-by-step procedure for testing
b) A high-level description of what to test
c) A tool used for defect tracking
d) A type of test case
90. What is typically included in a test scenario template?
a) Test data and expected results
b) Test steps and actual results
c) Scenario ID, description, and related requirements
d) Bug ID and severity
91. What is the main objective of writing test cases?
a) To document bugs
b) To ensure requirements are met
c) To reduce development time
d) To increase code coverage
92. Which of the following is an entry criterion for test case execution?
a) All defects are resolved
b) Test environment is set up
c) Test summary report is prepared
d) Test cases are archived
93. What is a best practice for writing effective test cases?
a) Use vague language
b) Avoid expected results
c) Keep them reusable and modular
d) Write them after testing
94. Which test case type focuses on checking the system’s response to invalid
inputs?
a) Functional
b) Negative
c) Smoke
d) Sanity
95. What type of test case is executed to verify critical functionalities before
detailed testing?
a) Regression
b) Sanity
c) Smoke
d) Performance
96. What is the primary purpose of test case management tools?
a) Automate test execution
b) Track defects
c) Organize and manage test cases
d) Compile source code
97. What is a defect in software testing?
a) A feature request
b) A deviation from expected behavior
c) A test case
d) A user story
98. What type of test case ensures that new changes haven’t broken existing
functionality?
a) Smoke
b) Regression
c) Sanity
d) Load
99. Which type of test case is used to verify the system’s performance under
heavy load?
a) Functional
b) Usability
c) Load
d) Security
100. Which of the following is NOT a Test Automation Framework?
a) Data-Driven Framework
b) Keyword-Driven Framework
c) Page Object Model
d) Load Balancing Framework
