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Oct 24 at 0:14 vote accept TrivialPursuit
Oct 24 at 0:14 vote accept TrivialPursuit
Oct 24 at 0:14
Sep 26 at 10:26 vote accept TrivialPursuit
Oct 24 at 0:14
Sep 26 at 0:17 comment added TrivialPursuit Thank you!!! Your answer gives me exactly what I wanted: It is enough that $\pi_{K-x_0}$ has a directional derivative at $u$ in the direction of $z$. Indeed (and this is what I missed, which makes me feel stupid), one has $\pi_{T_n}(z+nu)=\pi_{n(K-x_0)}(z+nu)=n\pi_{K-x_0}(z/n+u)$ which does have a limit as $n\to\infty$ if $\pi_{K-x_0}$ has directional derivatives at $u$. Thank you again!
Sep 25 at 23:41 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
added 20 characters in body
Sep 25 at 20:25 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0