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Sep 30, 2021 at 16:46 comment added Maximilian Janisch As a simple example: Consider the (formal) polynomial $P(X)=X^2+X \simeq (0,1,1,0,0,\dots)\in\mathbb Z_2^{\mathbb N_0}$, which indeed satisfies $P(0)=P(1)=0$ in $\mathbb Z_2$.
Oct 27, 2018 at 6:37 comment added Kapil I once heard this used to "prove" that $\mathbb{F}_2$ is algebraically closed. The "idea" is that any non-constant polynomial over this field "must" take a value different from 1. However, the only other value available is 0!
Apr 22, 2016 at 8:20 comment added Jose Brox Also closely related: Fermat's Little Theorem can be used to prove equality of polynomials. E.g., $X^2=X$ in $\mathbb{Z}_2[X]$ because $x^2=x$ in $\mathbb{Z}_2$.
Mar 10, 2016 at 4:49 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 8, 2010 at 0:04 comment added Jacques Carette This is another example of intension/extension (the distinction I was trying to get at in question mathoverflow.net/questions/18848/…).
Jun 6, 2010 at 20:53 comment added Vania Mascioni This seems related to the widely held belief that 1+1=2, (and how could 2 be equal to 0 ?!). On a psychological level this may connect with the assumption we all tend to make that a is different from b when asked to count the elements of set {a,b} (a related entry is somewhere else on this page), or that in general two different symbols are instinctively taken to denote two distinct objects.
Jun 6, 2010 at 18:37 history edited Terry Tao CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jun 6, 2010 at 18:29 history answered Terry Tao CC BY-SA 2.5