EDIT 01.04.2018. Recently one of my friends showed me an article by K.Smorynski in Handbook of Mathematical Logic (edited by Jon Barwise) where he formulates a statement which he calls "the Hilbert-Bernays theorem" (Theorem 6.1.1 in volume 4) and which as far as I understand is equivalent to the following:
If a formal theory $T$ is consistent then it has an interpretation in PA.
I believe this is more or less equivalent to what Matt.F suggests in his answer:
If a formal theory $T$ is consistent then it has an interpretation in MK.
And if somebody could give me a reference to this statement, this, I believe, will be a proper solution to what I need. Does anybody know such a reference?